Self-test Questions

You can find all the answers in Chapter 14: Self-test Answers.

1. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell (RBC) production
B. Erythropoietin stimulates white blood cell (WBC) production
C. Erythropoietin stimulates platelet production
D. Erythropoietin is produced by the kidney
E. None of the above

2. Which of the following is/are correct?

A. In normal dogs, erythrocytes circulate for approximately 100 days.
B. In normal cats, erythrocytes circulate for approximately 80 - 90 days.
C. Approximately 1% of the circulating red cells of the dog are replaced daily.
D. Effete red cells are phagocytized and metabolized by the macrophages of spleen, bone marrow and liver.
E. All of the above

3. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. The primary function of the red cell is to carry oxygen to tissue cells and to carry carbon dioxide away.
B. The primary red cell metabolic pathway is anaerobic glycolysis.
C. Oxidation of hemoglobin leads to methemoglobinemia and/or Heinz body formation.
D. Feline hemoglobin is less susceptible to oxidation than canine hemoglobin.
E. Heinz body formation and Heinz body hemolytic anemia occurs more readily in cats than dogs.

4. The proper term for poikilocytes with 2 - 10 blunt elongate finger-like surface projections is:

A. Acanthocytes
B. Elliptocytes
C. Eccentrocytes
D. Schistocytes
E. Burr cells

5. Which of the following is/are correct?

A. Crenation is the least common artifactual change seen in blood films.
B. Crenation is most often confused with spherocytosis.
C. Crenation is more prominent in films made from EDTA-anticoagulated blood than in films made from fresh non-anticoagulated blood.
D. Crenation affects only selected red cells on the blood film where as true poikilocytosis affects all red cells on the blood film.
E. All of the above.

6. Regenerative anemias:

A. Are characterized by increased polychromatophils on routinely stained blood films.
B. Are anemias with reticulocyte counts of greater than 80,000/ul
C. Are either the result of blood loss or hemolysis.
D. Are best confirmed by absolute reticulocyte counts
E. All of the above are correct.

7. Which type of anemia best fits a reticulocyte count of 100,000 reticulocytes/ul and a decreased total plasma protein?

A. Blood loss anemias
B. Hemolytic anemias
C. Cytoplasmic maturation defect anemias
D. Nuclear maturation defect anemias
E. Hypoproliferative anemias

8. Conditions which can cause immune-mediated hemolytic disease include:

A. Heartworm disease
B. Lymphoma
C. Lupus erythematosus
D. Exposure to certain drugs
E. All of the above

9. Which of the following is correct?

A. Maturation defect anemias have nonregenerative peripheral blood patterns and erythroid hyperplasia in the bone marrow.
B. Maturation defect anemias have regenerative peripheral blood patterns and erythroid hyperplasia in the bone marrow.
C. Maturation defect anemias have nonregenerative peripheral blood patterns and erythroid hypoplasia in the bone marrow.
D. Maturation defect anemias have regenerative and nonregenerative peripheral blood patterns and myelofibrotic bone marrow.
E. None of the above.

10. Which of the following is/are incorrect about polycythemia?

A. Polycythemia is defined as increased circulating red cell mass.
B. At PCV values >65%, hyperviscosity and poor perfusion and oxygenation of tissues are present.
C. Transient polycythemia may be caused by splenic contraction.
D. Polycythemias can be classified as relative, transient, or absolute.
E. Is most commonly caused by polycythemia vera.

11. Laboratory features of relative polycythemia may include:

A. Moderate increases in PCV
B. Elevated total protein concentration
C. Hypernatremia and hyperchloremia
D. Concentrated urine specific gravity
E. All of the above

12. Which of the following is/are correct?

A. Neutrophils serve as the primary defense against invasion of tissues by microorganisms.
B. Neutrophils kill bacteria and can also damage or participate in the destruction of mycotic agents, algae, and viruses.
C. Neutrophils accumulate at sites of inflammation or bacterial infection by a process of directional migration or chemotaxis.
D. At the site of inflammation, neutrophils are capable of phagocytosis and microbicidal activity.
E. All of the above

13. Which of the following can affect the neutrophil count in peripheral blood?

A. Changes in the rates of marrow production and release
B. Exchange between marginal neutrophil pool and circulating neutrophil pool
C. Tissue demand
D. Corticosteroids
E. All of the above

14. Mechanisms of neutropenia include:

A. Increased demand or consumption in tissues
B. Decreased marrow production
C. Dysgranulopoiesis
D. Increased movement from the circulating neutrophil pool to the marginal neutrophil pool
E. All of the above

15. Causes of neutrophilia include all of the following except:

A. Epinephrine release
B. Glucorticoid release
C. Inflammation
D. Hemorrhage
E. Endotoxemia

16. Which of the following best describes a leukogram characterized by a mild leukocytosis with mature neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia, and mild monocytosis?

A. Stress leukogram
B. Acute inflammatory leukogram
C. Chronic inflammatory leukogram
D. Leukemoid reaction
E. Leukemia

 17. Which of the following is incorrect about eosinophils?

A. Eosinophils are produced in the bone marrow in a process similar to neutrophil production.
B. Eosinophils participate as a major component of systemic hypersensitivity reactions.
C. Eosinophils play a major role in killing flukes and nematodes that have IgG or complement bound to their surface.
D. Eosinophils have limited phagocytic and bactericidal activity and may play a role in destroying neoplastic cells.
E. Eosinophils have long circulating half-lives.

18. Causes of peripheral eosinophilia may include all of the following except:

A. Allergic skin disease
B. Heartworm disease
C. Whipworm infection
D. Mast cell tumors
E. Hypereosinophilic syndrome

19. Specific macrophage functions include:

A. Phagocytosis
B. Regulation of the inflammatory response via release of inflammatory mediators
C. Antigen-processing for presentation to lymphocytes
D. Regulation of body iron stores
E. All of the above

20. Monocytosis can indicate:

A. The presence of inflammation
B. Demand for phagocytosis
C. Tissue necrosis
D. A "stress response" induced by high circulating glucocorticoids
E. All of the above

21. Which of the following is correct?

A. Monocytes originate in extramedullary sites
B. Monocytes are released into the peripheral blood as immature cells
C. Monocytes have a large bone marrow storage pool
D. Monocytes recirculate and have bi-directional movement
E. Monocytosis occurs with chronic inflammation only

22. Peripheral lymphocytes:

A. Are capable of phagocytosis.
B. Are approximately 70% bone marrow derived (B lymphocytes) and approximately 30% thymus derived (T-lymphocytes).
C. Have the unique ability to recirculate.
D. Survive in the body for only a total of 6 - 14 hours.
E. All of the above are correct.

23. Causes of severe lymphopenia (<700 lymphocytes/ul) include all of the following except:

A. Epinephrine release
B. Lymphangectasia
C. Lymphosarcoma
D. Chylothorax
E. Thoracic duct obstruction

24. Lymphocytosis in dogs may be caused by all of the following except:

A. Excitement
B. Recent vaccination
C. Inflammatory conditions associated with antigenic stimulation.
D. Lymphosarcoma
E. Lymphocytic leukemia

25. A canine patient is suspected of ingesting a coumarin-based rodenticide. Of the following tests, which should show evidence of abnormality first?

A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)
C. Activated Coagulation Time (ACT)
D. Thrombin Time (TT)
E. Fibrinogen concentration

26. The most appropriate test to determine hemorrhagic potential in a patient with known von Willebrand’s factor (vWf) deficiency is:

A. The platelet count
B. von Willebrand factor (vWf) quantitation
C. The buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT)
D. Factor VIII (FVIII) quantitation
E. The Activated Coagulation Time (ACT) test

27. A canine patient has a prolonged buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT), appropriate platelet numbers and appropriate PT and APTT tests. This suggests:

A. An endothelial cell or platelet functional problem
B. A coagulation factor deficiency, probably in the intrinsic path.
C. A coagulation factor deficiency, probably in the extrinsic path.
D. A coagulation factor deficiency involving the common path.
E. Excessive fibrinolysis.

28. An elderly male dog has clinical evidence of hemorrhagic diatheses following splenectomy for hemangiosarcom

A. The platelet count is moderately reduced; fibrinogen concentration is also reduced. APTT is prolonged. Fibrin degradation products (FDPs) are increased. This constellation of laboratory test results suggests:

A. The neoplasm has metastasized.
B. This patient has thrombus formation.
C. DIC.
D. This patient has an additional problem, probably vitamin K inhibition.
E. Factor VII deficiency.

29. Which of the following are consistent with inflammatory leukograms?

A. Persistent eosinophilia,
B. Monocytosis
C. Neutrophilic left shift
D. Absolute neutrophilias of greater than 25,000/µl
E. All of the above

30. Which characteristic of stress leukograms is most consistent?

A. Lymphocyte counts between 750/ul and 1500/ul
B. Eosinopenia
C. Marked neutrophilia
D. Moderate monocytosis
E. Nonregenerative anemia